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	<title>Comments on: The Tense and Aspect of Verbs</title>
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		<title>By: a thomist</title>
		<link>http://thomism.wordpress.com/2008/04/28/the-tense-and-aspect-of-verbs/#comment-1379</link>
		<dc:creator>a thomist</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 30 Apr 2008 05:41:38 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description>Alexander Pruss, 

Another example is Vietnamese, where all verbs are infinitive and the tense and aspect is done by adverbs. 

I think the idea of implied signs is good, and it fits into a larger idea of Grammar studying the ways words signify. If something is used in to consignify time, it is a verb or a part of a verb, regardless of whether it is one or many, or if one uses an adverb or a preposition or a participle for this function. 

A similar case applies to substantives- &quot;good&quot; is an adjective, but when it signifies as a substance it is a noun. For clarity, Grammar can distinguish between nouns and noun functions, but it doesn&#039;t make a difference in the mode of signification.   

Peter, 

That&#039;s right. There is an important differnce between Logic and Grammar, but they are close in Perihermeneas. Grammar studies the way words signify, Logic studies the relations that belong to things as known. 

Note that &quot;complete&quot; and &quot;perfect&quot; are synonyms in English when one uses them per se. Sometimes we say that a paper is completed without being perfect, but when we say this we are only taking about the paper being completed in an accidental way (it has 2500 words, say, which does not complete it in its nature.) The two are etymologically identical &quot;with a fullness&quot; and &quot;done through&quot;. Both signify a whole, and so in our first understanding of the terms its is the fulfillment (another synonym) of some potency. It&#039;s key to understanding Aristotle&#039;s notion of act to see that the complete is the perfect- and to see that this is so in English. 

Dave, 

Thanks a bunch! Encouragement is always helpful</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Alexander Pruss, </p>
<p>Another example is Vietnamese, where all verbs are infinitive and the tense and aspect is done by adverbs. </p>
<p>I think the idea of implied signs is good, and it fits into a larger idea of Grammar studying the ways words signify. If something is used in to consignify time, it is a verb or a part of a verb, regardless of whether it is one or many, or if one uses an adverb or a preposition or a participle for this function. </p>
<p>A similar case applies to substantives- &#8220;good&#8221; is an adjective, but when it signifies as a substance it is a noun. For clarity, Grammar can distinguish between nouns and noun functions, but it doesn&#8217;t make a difference in the mode of signification.   </p>
<p>Peter, </p>
<p>That&#8217;s right. There is an important differnce between Logic and Grammar, but they are close in Perihermeneas. Grammar studies the way words signify, Logic studies the relations that belong to things as known. </p>
<p>Note that &#8220;complete&#8221; and &#8220;perfect&#8221; are synonyms in English when one uses them per se. Sometimes we say that a paper is completed without being perfect, but when we say this we are only taking about the paper being completed in an accidental way (it has 2500 words, say, which does not complete it in its nature.) The two are etymologically identical &#8220;with a fullness&#8221; and &#8220;done through&#8221;. Both signify a whole, and so in our first understanding of the terms its is the fulfillment (another synonym) of some potency. It&#8217;s key to understanding Aristotle&#8217;s notion of act to see that the complete is the perfect- and to see that this is so in English. </p>
<p>Dave, </p>
<p>Thanks a bunch! Encouragement is always helpful</p>
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		<title>By: Peter</title>
		<link>http://thomism.wordpress.com/2008/04/28/the-tense-and-aspect-of-verbs/#comment-1378</link>
		<dc:creator>Peter</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 30 Apr 2008 00:23:38 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://thomism.wordpress.com/?p=1701#comment-1378</guid>
		<description>Oops, I meant the Peri Hermeneias, not the Posterior Analytics. It is amazing how you can think one thing and type another.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>Oops, I meant the Peri Hermeneias, not the Posterior Analytics. It is amazing how you can think one thing and type another.</p>
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	<item>
		<title>By: Peter</title>
		<link>http://thomism.wordpress.com/2008/04/28/the-tense-and-aspect-of-verbs/#comment-1377</link>
		<dc:creator>Peter</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Wed, 30 Apr 2008 00:16:21 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">http://thomism.wordpress.com/?p=1701#comment-1377</guid>
		<description>You are right, this is a great explanation. I like how it mirrors St. Thomas&#039;s Commentary on the Post. Anal. lesson 5.
I once made a diagram of this using time-reference and a horizontal bar representing an action occuring at various stages of completion. I thought it would help to &#039;visualize&#039; the process.

It is also interesting to note the use of the words &#039;perfect&#039;, &#039;imperfect&#039;, and &#039;pluperfect&#039;. If we think of the Latin word &#039;perfectum&#039; (completed) they are:
imperfect (imperfectum) = not completed
perfect (perfectum) = completed
pluperfect (plus quam perfectum) = more than completed</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>You are right, this is a great explanation. I like how it mirrors St. Thomas&#8217;s Commentary on the Post. Anal. lesson 5.<br />
I once made a diagram of this using time-reference and a horizontal bar representing an action occuring at various stages of completion. I thought it would help to &#8216;visualize&#8217; the process.</p>
<p>It is also interesting to note the use of the words &#8216;perfect&#8217;, &#8216;imperfect&#8217;, and &#8216;pluperfect&#8217;. If we think of the Latin word &#8216;perfectum&#8217; (completed) they are:<br />
imperfect (imperfectum) = not completed<br />
perfect (perfectum) = completed<br />
pluperfect (plus quam perfectum) = more than completed</p>
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		<title>By: Alexander R Pruss</title>
		<link>http://thomism.wordpress.com/2008/04/28/the-tense-and-aspect-of-verbs/#comment-1376</link>
		<dc:creator>Alexander R Pruss</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Apr 2008 22:03:12 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description>That is a nice explanation.

What do you make of languages that have aspect but no tense, e.g., classical Hebrew or Ugaritic?  Is there an implicit tense?</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>That is a nice explanation.</p>
<p>What do you make of languages that have aspect but no tense, e.g., classical Hebrew or Ugaritic?  Is there an implicit tense?</p>
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		<title>By: Dave</title>
		<link>http://thomism.wordpress.com/2008/04/28/the-tense-and-aspect-of-verbs/#comment-1375</link>
		<dc:creator>Dave</dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Tue, 29 Apr 2008 20:35:59 +0000</pubDate>
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		<description>I&#039;ve taught English, and I practice law, and up until now no one has ever explained that to me NEARLY as succinctly and clearly as you have.

So, despite my best efforts, I&#039;ve managed to once again prove the old adage that &#039;you learn something new every day&#039;.</description>
		<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I&#8217;ve taught English, and I practice law, and up until now no one has ever explained that to me NEARLY as succinctly and clearly as you have.</p>
<p>So, despite my best efforts, I&#8217;ve managed to once again prove the old adage that &#8216;you learn something new every day&#8217;.</p>
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